Posted by pinksharkmark (196.3.74.235) on July 26, 2000 at 15:43:22:
In Reply to: Well.. posted by Miguel on July 26, 2000 at 09:13:40:
The way I see it is that because psilocin is virtually identical to the serotonin molecule, differing by a single hydroxy group, it "muscles out" the regular serotonin molecule at the appropriate receptor site... i.e. binds preferentially.
Because it is slightly different from serotonin, a "superkey" to extend your analogy, a signal is sent to the hypothalamus that not only is there sufficient serotonin available, but, in fact, a SURFEIT of the stuff.
"So for Pete's sake stop this over-production of serotonin, willya? No more 'serotonin storms' for a bit, okay?" The hypothalmus agrees, and "resets" itself till the next cycle is due.
LSD probably acts in a similar fashion... either the LSD or, more likely, a metabolite of LSD that closely resembles serotonin, is preferentially bound to the appropriate receptor sites. As for whether one of the many metabolites of LSD is, in fact, psilocin, who knows?
As for the route of absorption of LSD, it is water soluble and readily absorbed through any mucous membrane, not just the digestive tract. Back in the sixties, it was a fairly common practice to let it be absorbed through the mucous membrane of the eyelid, as Kenn pointed out in one of his posts.
pinky